Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A heart murmur is an abnormal heart sound and is described as a faint or
loud blowing, swooshing sound with a high, medium, or low pitch. Lub-dub sounds are
normal and represent the S1 (first) heart sound and S2 (second) heart sound, respectively.
A pericardial friction rub is described as a scratchy, leathery heart sound. A click is
described as an abrupt, high-pitched snapping sound.
The Correct Answer is Option C
Inoculation with BCG vaccine will produce a false positive TB skin test. Vaccination with a live virus, weakened immune system, and poor testing technique are factors that can produce a false negative TB skin test, therefore Answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
The client with anorexia nervosa is in a state of negative nitrogen balance. She is likely experiencing metabolic acidosis. Answer A is incorrect because metabolic alkalosis is reflected as an increase in HCO3. Clients with anorexia will show a deficit in HCO3. Answers C and D are incorrect because anorexia nervosa clients have a metabolic disorder, not a respiratory disorder
The Correct Answer is Option B
This test is measured as described and can result in pain and a tingling sensation if the client has carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS). Answer A is incorrect because it is a test in which the client is asked to place the back of the hands together and flex the wrist at the same time causing pain. Answers C and D are exams not related to CTS, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
You are working on the 3pm-11pm shift. Estimate the patients 8 hour intake when administered with the following: IVF @ 25cc/hr continuous; TPN @ 50cc/hr continuous; Lipids at 10cc/hr for 12 hours (8pm-8am); NGT feeds @ 25 cc/hr continuous; 2 units of blood – 250ml/unit – first unit at 10am/ second unit at 4pm; IV Vancomycin – 250ml every 12 hours at 8am/8pm.
REMEMBER: cc = mL
IVF = 25 mL x 8 hours = 200 mL
TPN = 50 mL x 8 hours = 400 mL
Lipids = 10 mL x 3 hours (consider only 3hours 8pm-11pm as shift ends at 11pm) = 30 mL
NGT feeds = 25 mL x 8 hours = 200 mL
Blood - x1 unit given at 4pm included in 3pm-11pm shift = 250 mL
IV Vancomycin = 250 mL (given at 8pm, 8am shift not included)
TOTAL INTAKE = 1330 mLs
The Correct Answer is Option D
The other name for Buerger’s disease is thromboangiitis obliterans. Answer A is incorrect because pheochromocytoma is an adrenal tumor. Answer B is incorrect because intermittent claudication is pain in an extremity when walking. Answer C is incorrect because Kawasaki disease is an acute vasculitis that can result in an aneurysm in the thoracic area.
The Correct Answer is Option B
Simple procedures requiring asepsis will require Standard ANTT. These procedures include simple wound dressings, IV medication preparation and administration, removal of surgical drains and changing of IV fluids.
Surgical ANTT are for invasive procedures such as IV cannulation and Urinary catheterisation
Clean procedures are for non-invasive, non-sterile skills such as NGT insertion or colostomy care.
The Correct Answer is Option B
Prevention of any respiratory complications is the primary focus of nursing interventions after an open procedure to repair a hiatal hernia. Incentive spirometry promotes deep breathing and lung expansion. Answers A and C are both important nursing interventions, but do not directly relate to the respiratory system, so they are incorrect. Answer D has no data in the stem to support the action, making it incorrect. The client would need the HOB to be elevated to lower the diaphragm and facilitate lung expansion.
The Correct Answer is Option A
The client should avoid excessive wetting of the ear mold; therefore, the client needs further teaching. Answers B, C, and D indicate that the client understands the nurse’s teaching, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
Glucophage can cause renal problems. The dye used in cardiac catheterizations is also detrimental to the kidneys. The client may be placed on sliding scale insulin for 48 hours after the dye procedure or until renal function returns. Note the syllable phage, as seen in the syllable phagia, which means eating. Also note that answers A and C are opposites. Answer A is incorrect because the medication should be withheld; answer B is incorrect because limiting the amount of protein in the diet prior to the exam has no correlation to the medication. Taking the medication with water is not necessary, so answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
Partial seizures usually originate in the temporal lobe, making Answers A, B, and D incorrect because partial seizures do not usually occur in the other lobes.
The Correct Answer is Option B
HCG levels elevate rapidly and can be detected as early as two days after the missed period. Answer A is incorrect because prolactin is elevated with a prolactinoma, a type of pituitary tumor. Answer C is incorrect because lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S ratio) is indicative of lung maturity. Answer D is incorrect because estriol levels indicate fetal well-being.
The Correct Answer is Option A
Wrapping an elastic bandage on a stump using the circular technique can cause the wrap to act as a tourniquet and restrict blood flow, so a figure eight technique is utilized to prevent this from occurring. Answers B, C, and D are not the primary reasons for use of the figure eight technique, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
The dye used in the procedure can cause a decrease in renal function. The client’s renal function should be assessed and changes reported to the doctor immediately. Answer A is incorrect because the client’s allergies should be checked prior to the procedure, not after the procedure. The femoral artery is commonly used as the site for a catheterization. Answer B is incorrect because the pulses should be checked distal to the site. Answer D is incorrect because the permit should be signed prior to the procedure.
The Correct Answer is Option B
The nurse in answer B has the most experience in knowing the possible complications involved with preeclampsia. The nurse in answer A is a new nurse to this unit, so the answer is incorrect. The nurse in answer C has no experience with the postpartal client, so the answer is incorrect. The nurse in answer D also has no experience with postpartal clients, so the answer is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
The client with Cushing’s disease has adrenocortical hypersecretion. This increase in the level of cortisone causes the client to be immune-suppressed. The client with diabetes poses no risk to other clients and is not immunosuppressed, so answer B is incorrect. The client in answer C has an increase in growth hormone and poses no risk to himself or others, so the answer is incorrect. The client in answer D has hyperthyroidism, or myxedema, and poses no risk to others or himself, so it is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
Prolactinoma tumors are tumors arising from hyperplasia of the pituitary gland that are prolactin hormone–based. Amenorrhea and anovulation are associated with prolactinomas because the pituitary gland assists with stimulation of the ovaries and ovulation, so answer A is correct. Because the pituitary is located in the center of the skull, adjacent to the brain, answers B and C are associated with increased intracranial pressure. Answer D is incorrect because weight gain can occur, not weight loss.
The Correct Answer is Option A
Taking supplements of B3 (niacin) helps to improve the symptoms associated with Ménière’s disease. Answer B is incorrect because the client needs to limit sodium intake. The client with Ménière’s does not need additional sources of calcium; therefore, answer C is incorrect. Ménière’s is not improved by increasing fluid intake; therefore, answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
The best action is to have a professional hospital-based interpreter translate
for the client. English-speaking family members may not appropriately understand what
is asked of them and may paraphrase what the client is actually saying. Also, client
confidentiality as well as accurate information may be compromised when a family
member or a non–health care provider acts as interpreter.
The Correct Answer is Option D
The fluorescent treponemal antibody test (FTA-ABS) is most diagnostic for syphilis. Answer A is incorrect because a culture of the discharge is used to diagnose gonorrhea, not syphilis. Answers B and C are incorrect because they are screening tests and are not as diagnostic as the FTA-ABS is.
Please fill this form to further take Demo Quiz.
Want to get in touch? We'd love to hear from you. Here's how you can reach us...
